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Person A has the same utility function as person B and they are both risk-averse (e,g U = w^a, 0 lt; a lt; 1). is it possible that person A is

Person A has the same utility function as person B and they are both risk-averse (e,g U = w^a, 0 lt; a lt; 1). is it possible that person A is. Person A has the same utility function as person B and they are both risk-averse (e,g U = w^a, 0 < a < 1). is it possible that person A is willing to take on more risks than person B? Please explain

Person A has the same utility function as person B and they are both risk-averse (e,g U = w^a, 0 lt; a lt; 1). is it possible that person A is

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